The Greek word for “fornication” is “porneia”,
which means harlotry (including adultery and
incest); figuratively, idolatry: The NKJ renders
“fornication” as “sexual immorality.” The NIV
renders it as “marital unfaithfulness/infidelity.” As
you can see Christianity has made up its own
meaning of fornication to mean sex before
marriage. Christianity continues to define and
redefine itself. I continue to question Christians in
these matters.
Answered by Marshall Beretta, EPM Volunteer
I was not sure from your comments on “porneia”
whether you were arguing for personal support of
pre-marital sex. I’ll treat the general issue of the
word. The Bible in its entirety is clear on sexuality.
Words have meaning in context. Looking at a word
such as porneia (proveuo, porna, pornos, moicheia,
etc.) is only a prelude to understanding the specific
idea the writer is conveying to the reader within a
set of words. In addition, there is usually a broader
context within which a set of words is placed. This
can be within a sentence, paragraph, theme,
chapter, book, testament, or entire work. To fully
capture what a writer means for the reader to
understand by a word or idea, one must consider its
whole context, as well as its immediate context.
Even beyond a particular word usage is the greater
linguistic context of the language—its origins,
historical development, borrowed influences, etc.
The goal of a writer is to take a thought he desires
to convey, find appropriate words to convey the
idea in such a clear manner that many readers,
each coming from a unique perspective, can each
understand the original thought the author desires
to communicate. The three-degrees-of-separation
is a challenge because the process is based on
perspective. If what is being conveyed is absolute
truth, then the author needs to skillfully write down
the information in a manner that guards against
“reading into the words” the meaning that most fits
the readers’ personal agenda. Instead, it must lead
the reader to the author’s original thoughts, whether
or not what the author intended to convey is
comfortable for the reader. The reader is
responsible for his reaction to the thought. We all
have a worldview through which we interpret
communication.
“Porneia,” as used in the New Testament, has a
milieu involving the use the word in Classical Greek,
in the Septuagint (LXX), in the Intertestamental
period, in Koine Greek, and in Patristic Greek.
Looking at these linguistic periods it appears that
the word is primarily used for “fornication”, both
within and without marriage. The LXX uses it
predominately for the Hebrew word
“zanah ”—”commit fornication, be a harlot.” This is
sexual involvement with humans or false gods.
Israel is the bride of God and “fornication” (idolatry)
with other gods affects the relationship. (See the
minor prophet Hosea who is told to retrieve his
unfaithful wife out of harlotry as an image of God’s
care for apostate Israel.)

In Papyri and other sources the word is has the
meaning of “disease,” “active excess of evil.” The
Patristic period after the New Testament uses the
word in various manuscripts with meanings of
“fornication,” “unchastity,” “sexual impurity,” “illicit
intercourse,” “prostitution,” “adultery (as grounds
for divorce)” and “idolatry.” So, the question is
“what did God intend for the word to convey to the
early Church?”

TO BE CONTINUED.